** Update: ** I understand now thanks to you helpful people 🙂 I’ll leave it out in case anyone else doesn’t know this yet. ** Original: ** So I just finished the final test of Cryptography 1 after about 3 months, but one thing I’m not sure how to show this was this: if RSA was based on prime p instead of a compound N, show that anyone can calculate d = e ^ – 1 (mod p-1). Instead of saying d = e ^ – 1 (mod p + 1) or d = e ^ 2 (mod p). I’ve gone through all of my course notes twice, but something must be missing. I would love to have some help because it really bothers me.
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